ANSWERS

1. Name 2 congenital deformities affecting the mouth that usually result in euthanasia.
   • Cleft palate.
   • Hare lip.
   If the puppy or kitten survives to 3 months, then corrective surgery may be carried out, but generally these animals are unable to suckle and therefore it is considered sensible to perform humane destruction.
   
   
2. What is the name of the condition associated with bacterial infection of the jowls?
   Labial dermatitis.
3. Why should fish hooks lodged in the oral cavity be removed with caution?
   They possess a barb and therefore need to be cut rather than simply pulled through.
4. Give 2 examples of complications associated with oesophageal foreign bodies.
   • Oesophagitis as a result of trauma.
   • Infection introduced via a penetrative injury or from incomplete removal of the foreign body.
   Complications are often seen in cases of stick injury since the wood often splinters.
   
   
5. What is the name of the condition characterised by flaccid dilation of the oesophagus?
   Megaoesophagus.
6. What is gastric dilation?
   A serious condition in which the stomach fills up with gas and swells to enormous proportions.
7. What is gastric torsion?
   This occurs when a build up of gas in the stomach is unable to escape as a result of the stomach twisting around in the abdomen and knotting the cardia and pylorus together thus occluding both the entrance and exit.
8. Describe the first aid treatment of gastric dilation.
   • Calm and restrain the patient.
   • Time is of the essence so do not waste it by looking around for protective clothing.
   • Attempt to release the gas pressure by passing a lubricated stomach tube down the oesophagus.
   • If this is unsuccessful the left side of the abdomen may be pierced with a 16g needle at the point of maximum distension. Do not allow the stomach to deflate too rapidly.
   • Treat shock.
   • Prepare for emergency surgery if unsuccessful in releasing the gas.
   These procedures may only be carried out as a life saving emergency measure in cyanosed animals. The consent of the veterinary surgeon should be obtained prior to commencement.
   
   
9. What is another name for gastric dilation?
   Volvulus syndrome or gastric dilation volvulus (GDV).
10. Give 2 examples of breeds commonly affected by GDV?
    • Great Dane
    • Irish wolf hound.
11. What is a common complication of GDV?
    Cardiac arrhythmia (this often occurs 12-24 hours following surgery and therefore monitoring by auscultation or ECG is sensible).
12. List 5 ways in which the risk of GDV can be minimised.
    • The feeding of several small meals per day rather than one large one.
    • Ensure that the dog is rested for at least 1-2 hours following a meal.
    • Feed a high quality meatbased rather than cerealbased diet.
    • Soak dry food.
    • Raise the food bowl in order to prevent aerophagia.
13. What is endoscopy?
    A non-invasive technique used to visualise body cavities and hollow organs by use of a fibre-optic light source combined with optical systems of lenses and mirrors.
14. What is the name of the congenital deformity in which the pylorus is unable to function normally?
    Pyloric stenosis.
15. What is the name of the surgery performed to remove a foreign body from the small intestine?
    Enterotomy via laporotomy.
16. What is the name of the surgical procedure that involves resection of a part of the intestine in cases of severe bowel damage?
    Enterectomy.
17. What is intussusception?
    The telescoping of one section of the bowel into an adjoining portion.
18. What species is most commonly affected by intussusception, and what age are these animals usually?
    Cats; usually under 2 years old.
19. By what name is the surgical correction of intussusception known?
    End-to-end anastomosis.
20. What is proctoscopy?
    Examination of the rectum using a proctoscope (an illuminated speculum that aids visualisation by dilating the rectum with air).
21. List 5 possible causes of constipation.
    • Enlarged prostate.
    • Rectal tumour.
    • Perineal hernia.
    • Narrow pelvic canal.
    • Fractured pelvis.
22. List 4 methods by which constipation can be treated.
    • Manual evacuation.
    • Administration of enemata.
    • Administration of laxatives.
    • Concurrent treatment of the inciting cause.
23. What type of suture may be used following the replacement of a prolapsed rectum in order to help retain it in place?
    Purse string suture.
24. What is the name of the congenital condition in which the anus fails to unite with the rectum?
    Imperforate anus.
25. List considerations to be taken into account when nursing a dog following surgical removal of the anal sacs.
    • Defecation may be painful, therefore feed a bland diet little and often.
    • Faecal softeners may be indicated (such as Peridale).
    • Some dogs may experience faecal incontinence for a few days. This may be a long-term problem, but luckily is rare.
    • The dog is VERY likely to interfere with the wound and an Elizabethan collar is essential.
    • Analgesia and antibiotic therapy are usually indicated.
26. What is the name of the deep chronic infection of skin surrounding the anus, characterised by irritation, odour and the formation of sinuses and fistulae?
    Anal furunculosis.
27. What breed of dog is predisposed to anal furunculosis?
    The German Shepherd.
28. What is the name given to the procedure involving the destruction of living tissue by use of controlled applications of extreme cold? (A common method of treating anal furunculosis).
    Cryosurgery.
29. Give 3 examples of gases which when converted to their liquid state are suitable for cryosurgery.
    • Carbon dioxide.
    • Nitrogen.
    • Nitrous oxide.
30. The veterinary surgeon is using liquid nitrogen for cryosurgery. What is the minimum temperature that must be achieved for efficient results?
    At least -20°C.
31. What is a dewar?
    A large bodied, narrow necked metal container with a loose-fitting stopper; used to store liquid gas for cryosurgery.
32. State 4 risks associated with cryosurgery.
    • The danger of cold burn to personnel.
    • The danger of cold burn to the patient.
    • Evaporation.
    • Explosion (never store liquid gases in tightly sealed containers)
33. What is laryngeal paralysis?
    Inability to dilate the rima glottidis due to paralysis of the laryngeal muscles. The cause is unknown, and the disease often affects large breeds of dogs in old age. The condition is usually bilateral (unilateral in horses).
34. Laryngeal paralysis is irreversible, but certain treatments may assist respiration. Can you name them?
    • Treatment with steroids in the early stages.
    • Surgery to open the airway; this is called unilateral arytenoid lateralisation (or more commonly, "laryngeal tie-back").
35. State 2 dog breeds that are prone to laryngeal paralysis.
    • Irish setter.
    • Labrador retriever.
36. What is the difference between a tracheostomy and a tracheotomy?
    A tracheostomy is a technique for creating a permanent opening into the trachea in order to bypass an obstruction, whilst a tracheotomy is a life-saving temporary opening performed in the event of acute upper away obstruction.
    Tracheostomies are rarely indicated in veterinary medicine.
37. What does BAOS stand for?
    Brachycephalic airway obstruction syndrome.
38. List the 6 main problems that together contribute to BAOS.
    • Narrow nares.
    • Narrow nasal cavity.
    • Narrow pharynx.
    • Overlong soft palate.
    • Overlong tongue.
    • Hypoplastic trachea.
39. What is the name given to a temporary surgical opening into the thorax performed in order to facilitate surgery on the intrathoracic organs?
    Thoracotomy.
40. Thoracotomy can be approached in one of 3 ways. State them.
    • Incision through the intercostal muscles (the most commonly used technique in cats and dogs).
    • Rib resection and incision of the underlying periosteum and pleura.
    • Sternotomy (splitting of the sternum).
41. How soon can a chest drain be removed following thoracotomy?
    Usually after a few hours.
42. What is the name that describes the complete removal of a kidney?
    Nephrectomy.
43. Give 3 reasons as to why a nephrectomy may be indicated.
    • Neoplasia.
    • Chronic nephritis.
    • Hydronephrosis.
44. What is hydronephrosis?
    The accumulation of urine in the pelvis of the kidney which results in atrophy of the kidney structure.
45. List 3 possible causes of hydronephrosis.
    • Congenital malformation.
    • Acquired as a result of obstruction by a tumour or urolith.
    • Back pressure as a result of stricture of the urethra or enlarged prostate.
46. What is the name that describes the surgical removal of a kidney and its ureter?
    Ureteronephrectomy.
47. What is the name of the condition in which the ureter/s insert further down the urinary tract than normal, causing urinary incontinence?
    Ureteric ectopia, or more commonly known as ectopic ureters.
48. State breed of dog suffers most commonly from ectopic ureter.
    • Labrador retriever.
49. What is a cystotomy?
    A surgical procedure involving the opening up of the bladder; usually to remove uroliths.
50. What is the term that describes the removal of urethral calculi by forcible injection of sterile saline via urethral catheterisation?
    Retropulsion.
51. What is the safest way in which to relieve a cat suffering from a blocked bladder if minimal help is available?
    Cystocentesis (see General Nursing chapter).
52. What is the common name for bilateral orchidectomy?
    Castration.
53. What is the common name for ovariohysterectomy?
    Spaying.
54. What is pyometra?
    Accumulation of pus in the uterus; this may be "open" or "closed". A closed pyometra can be fatal and requires immediate surgery.
55. What is the correct term used to describe Caesarean section performed to relieve dystocia due to uterine inactivity or foetal obstruction?
    Hysterotomy.
56. What hormone is responsible for causing vaginal hyperplasia?
    Oestrogen.
57. Give 4 examples when the use of ultrasound might be indicated.
    • Pregnancy diagnosis.
    • Evaluation of the reproductive tract.
    • Echocardiography - investigation of cardiac function.
    • Evaluation of the architecture of parenchymal organs such as the liver, spleen and kidneys.