ANSWERS

Note that some of the questions in this section (those marked with an asterisk) are more advanced than required for the final V.N. exams. However, they are of interest to those already qualified, or studying for the Medical Diploma.

1. State the 2 minerals that must be present in the correct ratio in the diet of a growing animal in order to ensure healthy bone.
   • Calcium.
   • Phosphorous.
2. State the 2 most important vitamins necessary in the correct quantity in the diet of a growing animal to promote healthy bone.
   • Vitamin A.
   • Vitamin D.
3. What disease of bone is associated with an incorrect balance of calcium and phosphorous?
   Secondary nutritional hyperparathyroidism.
4. What is another name for secondary nutritional hyperparathyroidism?
   Renal rickets (or rubber jaw).
5. What is the name of the bone disease of cats associated with hypervitaminosis A?
   Cervical spondylitis.
6. List 5 major canine developmental skeletal diseases.
   • Hip dysplasia.
   • OCD.
   • Wobbler syndrome.
   • Panosteitis.
   • Ununited anconeal process.
7. State the most common canine developmental orthopaedic disease encountered by veterinary surgeons.
   Canine hip dysplasia (CHD).
8. Give 2 examples of dog breeds predisposed to disc protrusion (prolapsed intervertebral disc - PID).
   • Dachshund.
   • Pekingese.
9. Define osteopathy.
   Any disease of bone in the skeleton.
10. *Give an example of a dog breed predisposed to craniomandibular osteopathy.
    The West Highland white terrier.
11. What is osteodystrophy?
    Disease of bone during its development and growth.
12. *What disease of bone is most commonly seen in Great Danes and giant breeds aged 3-6 months?
    Metaphyseal osteopathy.
13. *By what other name might metaphyseal osteopathy be known?
    Skeletal scurvy.
14. *What part of the anatomy in addition to bone is affected by secondary hypertrophic osteopathy (Marie's disease)?
    The lungs.
15. What is the most likely cause of osteomyelitis?
    Bacterial infection (usually pyogenic).
16. What is the name of the disease caused by a deficiency of osteoid due to a disturbance of tissue metabolism (rather than calcium:phosphorous metabolism)?
    Osteopenia (osteoporosis).
17. Define arthritis, and list 6 possible causes.
    Arthritis is the inflammation of one or more joints. It is characterised by restricted movement in the joint, pain and swelling. Possible causes:
    • Excessive wear.
    • Poor joint conformation.
    • Post injury/trauma.
    • Infectious.
    • Immune mediated.
    • Nutritional imbalance/deficiency.
18. What infectious disease may cause arthritis?
    Lyme disease.
19. A dog is presented showing pain, stiffness and joint disuse. The veterinary surgeon suspects arthritis, but wants to rule out other differential diagnoses including tendon injury and osteomyelitis. How could the arthritis diagnosis be confirmed?
    • Radiography.
    • Synovial fluid examination and culture.
20. Give 2 examples of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) used in the treatment of non-infectious arthritis.
    • Metacam (meloxicam).
    • Rimadyl (carprophen).
21. Briefly describe DJD.
    DJD is short for degenerative joint disease; a progressive condition that leads to the erosion of cartilage and new bone deposits around the joint. German Shepherds are an example of a dog breed predisposed to this condition.
22. *List 5 procedures/tests that may be performed in order to aid the diagnosis of feline immune-based polyarthritis.
    • Radiography.
    • Rheumatoid factor.
    • Antinuclear antibody.
    • Synovial fluid analysis.
    • Synovial membrane biopsy.
23. What is the most common cause of bursitis?
    Trauma; heavy dogs lying down on hard surfaces).
24. What is the name of the disease caused by a disturbance of endochondrial ossification affecting the growth plates and articular cartilage?
    Osteochondrosis (OCD).
25. State the 4 breeds of dog that are most at risk of OCD.
    • Great Dane.
    • Rottweiler.
    • Labrador retriever.
    • Newfoundland.
26. What 2 tissue types are affected by OCD?
    • Bone.
    • Cartilage.
27. State the risk factors for osteochondrosis.
    • Genetics.
    • Age.
    • Gender (males are more likely to develop OCD of the proximal humerus).
    • Breed.
    • Calcium excess.
    • Feeding methods (especially ad-lib feeding).
    • Excessive weight gain.
28. What is osteomalacia?
    The failure of osteoid tissue to mineralise; a disease of the skeleton caused by inadequate intake of bon-forming elements in the diet or a vitamin D deficiency.
29. By what name is the juvenile form of osteomalacia known?
    Rickets.
30. What is panosteitis?
    Localised excessive formation of bone in young dogs.
31. List 4 clinical signs of panosteitis.
    • Shifting lameness.
    • Recurrent lameness.
    • Pain associated with long bones.
    • Pyrexia.
32. What is the term used to describe a loss of bone density, resulting in bones that are brittle and liable to fracture?
    Osteoporosis.
33. What is the term used to describe inflammation of muscle tissue?
    Myositis.
34. What part of the anatomy is affected in cases of atrophic myositis?
    The mouth (the muscles of mastication).
35. What disease of muscle is characterised by profound muscular weakness induced by exercise, regurgitation, salivation, ulceration of buccal mucosa and distension of the bladder?
    Myasthenia gravis.
36. Give an example of a neoplasm that affects bone.
    Osteosarcoma.
37. What is an osteoma?
    A benign tumour of bone.
38. List general requirements for the nursing of any patient with bone disease.
    • Ensure rest.
    • Ensure plenty of deep, comfortable bedding.
    • Ensure that weight is kept at an optimal level (obesity can cause conditions to worsen).
    • Ensure that any medication is given at the correct dose, by the correct route and at the correct time.
    • Ensure that the owner is given the correct instructions for care of the animal at home when discharged.